[Emperor Bulshitian & lord mcsame]

...foreclosing today was made about how long ago? I understand that any mortgage can be foreclosed at any time...and that the truth of the matter is there have always been foreclosures in the USA. Foreclosures actually used to happen a lot "mostly" because marriages were breaking up and divorces, death of an income earned, major illness, and layoff etc... But as we now know, we have record foreclosures going on in the USA. So the question I want to ask is ...assuming that currently most of the foreclosures going on where these so called bad loans made to people who could not afford them or had short term adjstables going up in rate suddenly, then what can we conclude as to when a person facing foreclosure today approximately got that loan..generally speaking?Would it be 15 years ago? would it be 10 years ago? would it be 7 years ago? would it be 5 years ago? would it be 5 years ago...or would you say that the typical person facing foreclosure today due to a "bad" loan more than likely got that mortgage loan less than 3 years ago?This question is meant to force some of you to think a bit more logically and less emotionally about the so called sub prime crisis...and to understand better about the approximate time when this mess really started.10 points to be awarded to the sharpest answer that displays the most analytical thinking and reasoning.

[shpbk45213]

Based on my experience, most people who are in foreclosure and have subprime loans received those loans within the last five years, especially if the loan is an ARM.