Can I call the bank directly if I run a property that I know is vacant and is in NOD? Or do I still have to get the owners consent? Thanks I am in California and the property is owned by wamu if that matters.
yes, that is correct the home belongs to the homeowners who have full rights to the property until foreclosure sale has happened. The bank can not make any deals without the consent of the homeowners because the property does not belong to the bank.
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