[mad editor]

My father in law died last year. He was long divorced and bought his current house years after his divorce, so his name was the only one on the mortgage. My wife was his only child, sole heir, and executrix. We have kept his house and use it for vacations. We do not rent it out and have no plans to sell it. (We can easily keep up with the mortgage payments and taxes.) My understanding was that the bank has to let us assume the mortgage since we are living in the house.The bank says they won't change the title unless we refinance, which is expensive and time-consuming. We wouldn't care except the IRS won't let us deduct the interest and property taxes unless it's in my wife's name. I think the bank wrong. Any thoughts?