[UpAcreek]

...negligence in this case? I received a contract on my home on March 28th. We were due to close on April 30th. On April 28th, my realtor called to tell me that the buyer couldn't get financed. The mortgage broker was working from a credit report that was 120 days (or more) old, i.e. a credit report pulled in 2009! At the last minute, the bank pulled a credit report (I understand this is what they do), and discovered a problem. Again, I get this part, but the "problem" is reportedly a collection item from a dr., which has been paid. Both me and the realtor are now wondering if this broker missed this in his initial assessment, and/or why the bank would've spent $ on appraisals, etc. without first finding out if these folks could get a loan. Something is smelly to me. Just doesn't seem to make sense. It's been many years since I purchased this home, but I recall having an item or two similar to this on my credit report. The bank wanted a written statement and a "paid" document from the creditor. I know times have changed, but I feel like I've been had. My realtor says due to privacy laws, there's very little we can ever know about the prospective buyer. Again, I get this but......??? This home is a simple home, nothing extravagant, $104K price tag, so obviously the tax credit would've play heavily into the picture for the prospective buyer. So now, my window of opportunity is nearly slammed shut, the broker tied up the house for the past 30 days of the offering. I've been laid off since this started and really needed this home to sell! Any advice or feedback? I'm TICKED!!